IAS Mains 2013 Optional Subject: Public Administration Paper-II

Question 1 (Compulsory)
Attempt following about 150 words each. 10 marks x 5 = 50m
1. The charter act of 1853 marked the beginning of parliamentary system in India. Explain
2. Civil service neutrality is founded on the application of the principles of rule of law. Comment
3. The second generation reforms in Panchayati Raj institution have changed Panchayats from an agency of Development at local level into a political institution. comment
4. Finance commission in India performs the job of statistics aggregation. comment
5. Planning enables comprehensive and scientific understanding of problems. Examine the statement in context of planning methodology.

Question 2
1. Bureaucratic agencies, characterized by established procedures, specialization, leadership, clean objectives, are not ideal to handle disaster Management. examine with reference to the need for Administrative flexibility in managing disasters. (20 marks | 250 words)
2. The liberal -democratic ideology of the west influenced in shaping of value premises of the Indian Constitution. Discuss. (20 marks | 250 words)
3. Autonomy to public sector undertakings is a myth. Analyze in the context of the use of government Expenditure by politicians to control governments at different levels. (10 marks | 150 words)

Question 3
1. Laws are enacted without involving police in the conception stage, with the result implementation of these laws leaves much to be desired. Examine the role of police in protection of children. (10 marks | 150 words)
2. Central Secretariat is the nodal agency for administering the union subjects and establishing coordination among the various activities of government discuss. (20 marks | 250 words)
3. Is there is need to dispense with the office of the governor? Examine in the context of coalition governments. (10m | 150w)

Question 4
1. “There is a tendency of centralism in Indian federalism, but it is not because of its institutional framework but because of its socialist goals and centrally devised plan development.” explain the statement in the context of union-state relationships (20m|250w)
2. Use of information and communication technology in Panchayat’s function enhances efficiency, transparency and accountability and also induces mass ICT culture. Examine (20m|250w)
3. Judicial review of administrative tribunal’s decision defeats the very objective of establishing tribunals. Comment with reference to central Administrative tribunal. (10m|150w)

Question 5 (Compulsory)
Attempt following about 150 words each. 10 marks x 5 = 50m
1. Public Administration today tends to be less of public in quantitative terms, but more responsive to public needs than before in qualitative terms. Examine with reference to citizen centric administration
2. Performance budgeting failed because it was applied to sectors/ programs where quantitative evaluation was not feasible. Examine the principles underlying performance budgeting techniques.
3. The design of the Indian police was to subjugate the India n people in the aftermath of 1857. Analyze in the context of Indian police Act of 1861.
4. Reducing the size (geographical area) of the district will provide relief to the overburdnened and overworked collector. comment
5. The concept of social audit is more comprehensive than that of traditional audit. comment

Question 6
1. Gandhian model of decentralization is similar to the process of reinventing governance. Analyze in the context of good governance. (20m|250 words)
2. Accounting is the essence of producing promptly and clearly the facts relating to financial conditions and operations that are required as a basis of management. Substantiate the statement in the context of accounting methods and techniques in government (20m|250 words)
3. Explain the important recommendations of VT Krishanamachary Committee (1952) on the Indian and State Administrative services and problems of district administration. (10m|150w)

Question 7
1. The 73rd amendment, it is felt, may accentuate fiscal indiscipline by establishing between states and local governments a system of transfers, similar to the one in place between central and state government (world d bank) Comment (20m|250w)
2. Municipal administration in India faces both structural and operational challenges. examine in context of the post 74th amendment act (20m|250w)
3. Self-help groups (SHG) have contributed to a change in the role of rural women in development from symbolic participation of empowerment (10m|150w)

Question 8
1. There is both criminalization of politics and politicization of criminals in India . Examine and identify the challenges they cause for law and order administration. (20m|250w)
2. The basic ethical problem of an administrator is to determine how he/she can use discretionary power in a way that is consistent with democratic values. comment with reference to corruption in administration (20m|250w)
3. Justify the Constitutional provisions to treat certain expenditure as charged upon Consolidate fund of India (10m|150w)

IAS Mains 2013 Optional Subject: Public Administration Paper-I

Q-1 Answer the following, questions in not more than 150 words each. 5 questions x 10 marks each.
1. How did the traditional Public Administration resolve the fundamentally irresolvable problem- creating an administration strong enough to be effect but not strong enough to endanger accountability?
2. The theory of organizational incompetence has two separate and distinct faces. Examine Chris Argyris’ views on this
3. In the globalized Public Administration, hierarchy creates more ethical problems than it solves. Comment
4. Public Administration in the neo-liberal era is government less by the instruments of accountability and more by those of external accountability Elaborate
5. Discuss the views that “tribunals should have the same degree of independence from the Executive as that enjoyed by the supreme court and high courts, especially for those tribunals that look over the functions of high courts.

Question 2
1. New Public Administration may have neither been the savior its enthusiasts promised, nor the devil its critics worried it would be. Discuss. (25 marks | word limit not mentioned)
2. “The design of physical structures, the anatomy of the organization came first, and was indeed the principle consideration.” “An organization is a system of interrelated social behaviors of participants” Analyses these statements and evaluate the contribution of the respective approach to Administrative theory. (25 marks | word limit not mentioned)

Question 3
1. Decisions are not made by organizations, but by human beings behaving as the members of organizations. How do Bernard and Herbert A. Simon conceptualize the relation between decision of the individual employee and the organizational authority? 20 marks
2. A variety of different organizational arrangement can be used to provide different public goods and services. Example the theory underlying this proposition and its potential contribution. 15 marks.
3. What is the nature of psychological contract persued by organizational management through authority and employees through exertion of upward influence? 15

Question 4
1. Structure theory is by and large, grounded in classical principles of efficiency, effectiveness and productivity. Explain. 25 marks
2. Public interest is still inadequate as a ground concept to evaluate public policy. Discuss. 25 marks.

Question 5 (Compulsory)
Answer all five, in not more than 150 words each. 10 marks x 5 = 50 marks.
1. Comparative Public Administration both resembles and differs from modern organization theory. elaborate
2. In organizational analysis, there is always gender around (Gouldner). Argue
3. What is Administrative elitism? How does it evolve in Public Administration? elaborate your response with reference to historical examples
4. The success of e-government projects in most developing countries s is state to be rather low. Assess the reason.
5. What new models of budgetary capacity and incapacity have emerged after the decline of planning programming budgeting and zero based budgeting?

Question 6
1. “For those who use the euphemism of ‘shared power’ for participation, the appropriate literature for guidance is practical politics and not organization and Management.” “Stronger state and strong civil society are the need to develop both participatory democracy and responsive government as mutually reinforcing and supportive.” Bring out the myths and realities associate with public participation. 20 marks
2. “….in most cases….newly independent states, of the nations of Africa, Asia and Latin America, despite their differences…are in transition.” (Ferrel Heady). What common features are indicative of characteristics of their Administrative patterns (cultures)? 15m
3. “To talk about the regulatory framework is to talk about short governance.” Analyze the statement in the context of public private partnership and identify the elements of regulation. 15m

Question 7
1. Economic reforms are a work in progress, with the state reluctant to fully relinquish its reins. Discussion the statement with regard to implementation of economic reforms in India . 15
2. “the policy process was not structured in the way required by bureaucratic planning.” ”Arguably, instrumentalism now stands most in contrast to neo liberal nationality that impose market against both gradual change and democratic liberalism.” analyses these two statements. 20 marks.
3. Budget allocations involves series of tensions between actors with different backgrounds, orientations and interests and between the short term goals and long term institutional requirements. Discuss. 15 marks

Question 8
Q8a. Read following instances carefully and suggest what specific perspectives on organizational psychology of motivation would help the concerned organization to reconcile the needs of the following four persons with the needs of organization: 30m
1. Mr.A comes to his office with clocklike punctuality; does his work with impeccable honesty and integrity; takes orders from above gladly; responds well to overtures by peers; but neither mixes with anyone himself nor seeks anyone’s company. what is more, he seem quite happy in his isolation.
2. Mr.B is an efficient charge hand at the welding shop. He is very outgoing and makes friends fast, but falls out with them very fast too. He is, however, easily pacified when anyone asks him to calm down in the name of the organization.
3. Mr.C is completely happy and absorbed when he is teaching in the classes, and doesn’t at all mind when is workload gets heavier and covers new areas. But he gets angry when the finance section raises objection about his medical bills; and is furious that the higher administration is yet to give him full tenure.
4. Mr.D is a metallurgist in the forge shop of the steel plan, and has received honors for his innovativeness in modifying conventional alloys. He also paints well and values his painting skills far more than his metallurgy and is extremely unhappy that company house journal did not finally carry his water sketch on its front cover.
Q8b. Suppose the government of India is thinking of constructing a dam in a mountain valley girded by forests and inhibited by ethnic communities. What rational techniques of policy analysis should it resorts to for coping with likely uncertainties and unforeseen contingencies.

IAS Mains 2013 Optional Subject: Geography Paper-I

Question 1 (Compulsory)
Write short notes on the following in about 150 words each: 10 marks x 5 = 50
1. Differences between Normal cycle and Arid cycle of Davis.
2. Differentiate Storm Surges and Seiches.
3. Uniqueness of fauna in the Notogean realm.
4. Impact of Pleistocene Ice Age on the crust of the Earth.
5. Types of endemic plants and their degree of vulnerability to extinction.

Question 2
Answer the following in about 250 words each:
1. With suitable examples, bring out the impact of local winds on the climate of an area. 20
2. What are the characteristics that make CHC a serious threat to the ecosystem? Give examples. 15
3. What is ‘Base level’? Explain the types of base level. 15

Question 3
Answer the following in about 250 words each:
1. “Offshore Acoustic Study helped the development of the concept of sea floor spreading.” Explain.20
2. Discuss Dew point and the various forms of condensation. 15
3. Bring out the relationship between climate and vegetation in the Mountain Biome.15

Question 4
Answer the following in about 400 words each: 25 x 2=50
1. Compare the Subsidence and Glacial control theories on the formation of coral reefs. 25
2. Explain the levels of Noise pollution and the legislative measures to control it. 25

Question 5 (Compulsory)
Write short notes on the following in about 150 words each: 10 marks x 5 = 50 marks
1. ”Ellen Churchill Semple is an ardent supporter of Determinism.” Explain.
2. Role of Venezuela in the production and export of oil.
3. Misra’s theoretical stages of Rural – Urban Process.
4. Countries most affected in case of shut-down of Nuclear power.
5. Relevance of Heartland theory in Contemporary world.

Question 6
Answer the following in about 250 words each:
1. What is Geriatrics? What are the problems associated with Geriatric population? 20
2. Discuss the changing pattern of production and export of Coffee in the world. 10
3. What are the basic postulates in the Central Place Model of Christaller? 20

Question 7
Answer the following in about 250 words each :
1. “Urban Solid Waste Management poses the greatest challenge in Metropolitan planning.’ Elaborate.
2. Analyse the reasons for a comparatively poorer development of fishing grounds in tropical areas.
3. Explain the parameters for assessment and the spatial pattern of Human Development Index in the world.

Question 8
Write about the following in about 400 words each. 25 Marks x 2 = 50 marks
1. “Urban Geography is nothing but city “in” area and city “as” area.” Elaborate.
2. Analyse the causes for changes in the pattern of world trade.

IAS Mains 2013 Optional Subject: Geography Paper-II

Question 1 (Compulsory)
1. On the outline map of India provided to you, mark the location of all of the following. Write in your Booklet the significance of these locations, whether physical/commercial/economic/ecological/environmental/cultural, in not more than 30 words for each entry : 2×5=10
a. Mishmi Hills
b. Lipulekh Pass
c. Bees River
d. Rihand Dam
2. Explain the topographical and structural characteristics of the Siwalik Range. (10 marks| 150 words)
3. Discuss the mechanism of Indian Monsoon. (10 marks| 150 words)
4. Identify the main industrial clusters of India and account for their development. (10 marks| 150 words)
5. Explain the method of delineating crop-association regions with reference to India. (10 marks| 150 words)

Question 2
1. Discuss the potentiality and present status of horticulture in the Western and Central Himalaya. (20m|250 words)
2. Delineate the coalfields of India and mention their distinctive features. (15|150 words)
3. Explain the role of multinationals in globalization of industries India. (15m|150 words)

Question 3
1. Distributional pattern of industries in India does not provide requisite basis for division of the country into distinct Industrial regions. Elaborate. (25m| 250 words)
2. Discuss the role of institutional factors in shaping the pattern of Indian agriculture. (15m| 150 words)
3. What do you understand by ‘Young India? How can the present state of population composition be converted into an asset for the country? (15m| 150 words)

Question 4
1. Comment on the feasibility of interlinking of rivers of India and its possible contribution to resolution of water crisis. (20m| 250 words)
2. Define agricultural productivity. Mention the methods of its measurement and bring out the disparities in its regional distribution. (15m| 150 words)
3. Discuss the problems in realization of benefits of globalization and liberalization in industrial sector of India. (15m| 150 words)

Question 5 (Compulsory)
150 words each. 10 marks x 5 = 50 marks.
1. City-regions as territorial unit for regional planning and development
2. Snags in the Food Security Policy of India
3. Demographic dividend and its implications on environment
4. Planning and development of ‘Tribal Regions’ in India
5. On the outline map of India provided to you, mark the location of all of the following. Write in your QCA Booklet the significance of these locations, whether physical/commercial/economic/ecological/environmental/cultural, in not more than 30 words for each entry.
a. Rajgir
b. Sindri
c. National Highway No. 24
d. Churk
e. Indira Gandhi Canal

Question 6
1. Write a note on geopolitics of the Indian Ocean realm. (20m| 250 words)
2. Comment on the basis of creation of new States in India in 2000. (15m| 150 words)
3. Enumerate the basic indicators of development and explain their application in identification of the spatial diversity in development in India. (15m| 150 words)

Question 7
1. Write a note on the emergence of National Settlement System in colonial India and discuss the factors contributing to urbanization in post-independence period. (20m| 250 words)
2. Define slums and explain their problems. (15m | 150 words)
3. Discuss the objectives of Vision 2020′ in creation of viable village complex in India for Inclusive Rural Development’ programme. (15m| 150 words)

Question 8
1. Identify the earthquake-prone zones and suggest strategy for their management. (20m| 250 words)
2. Describe the impact of linguistic diversity on the development of various regions of India. (15m| 150 words)
3. Describe how urbanization creates air and water pollution in India. (15m | 150 words)

IAS Mains 2013 Optional Subject: Political Science & IR Paper-I

Q.1 Comment on the following in approximately 150 words each, 10 marks each
A. “Personal is political”
B. “Original position”
C. “Covenants without swords are but words, and of no strength to secure a man at all.”
D. Sri Aurobindo’s “idea of freedom”
E. Sri Ahmed Khan as modernizer

Q.2
A. Discuss the communitarian critique of liberalism. 20
B. Examine Ambedkar’s critique of Marxism. 15
C. Explain, as per Gramsci, the distinction between hegemony and domination. 15

Q.3
A. Analyze the relationship between natural rights and human rights. 20
B. Examine the significance of Dharma in Ancient Indian political thought. 15
C. Discuss in what sense Max’s understanding of state can be considered as materialistic. 15

Q.4
A. Explain Berlin’s notion of value pluralism. 20
B. Analyse,as per Kautilya,the Saptanga theory of the state. 15
C. Comment on the Assertion of Laslett that Filmer and not Hobbes was the main antagonist of Locke. 15

Q.5 Comment on the following in approximately 150 words each, 10 marks each
A. Marxist understanding of India’s freedom movement
B. Significance of the Preamble
C. Decline of Indian Parliament
D. Gandhian perspective of development and its contemporary relevance.
E. Compare and contrast Chipko Movement with Narmada Bachao Andolan.

Q.6
A. Explain the phenomenon of ethnic politics in India in recent times.
B. Analyse the significance of Article 32 of the Indian Constitution.
C. Examine the role of Supreme Court as the final interpreter of the Indian Constitution.

Q.7
A. “Cooperative federalism produces a strong central, or general government, yet it does not necessarily result in weak provincial governments that are largely administrative agencies for central policies. Indian federation has demonstrated this.”(Granville Austin) Examine the uniqueness of Indian federalism in the light of the above statement. 20m
B. Explain to what extent the concept of “one-party dominance”(W.H.Morris-Jones)model is relevant in Indian policy today. 20m
C. Analyze the position of the Prime Minister of India in a coalition regime. 20m

Q.8
A. Examine the significance of the verdicts of the Supreme Court in the Golaknath and Keshavananda Bharati cases for an understanding of the scope of Article 368 in regard to Fundamental Rights.
B. Point out and comment on the historic importance of the document “Towards Equality(1974),for women’s movement in India.”
C. Examine the changing structure of Panchayati Raj instituions with special reference to the 73rd Constituiton Amendment Act.

IAS Mains 2013 Optional Subject: Political Science & IR Paper-II

Q1. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each x 10 mark each
A. Identify the elements of change in India’s foreign policy.
B. Sketch the leadership role of India in WTO negotiations.
C. Examine the recent developments in India-Japan relationship.
D. Bring out the objectives of India seeking permanent seat in Security Council
E. Is India’s Nuclear doctrine a viable one?

Q2 Answer the following questions in about 200 words each (20+15+15=50m)
A. Compare and contrast social movements in advanced industrial and developing societies.
B. Give reasons for Regionalism of world politics.
C. Compare and Contrast Sin-India approaches to global Environmental concerns.

Q3 Answer the following questions in about 200 words each (20+15+15=50m)
A. What roles do norms, taboos and epistemic play in the context of nuclear proliferation?
B. Substitantiate APEC as a regional economic and trade arrangement.
C. Identify the major changes in the International Political economy in post Cold War period.
Q4 Answer the following questions in about 200 words each (20+15+15=50m)

A. Is the rise of social movement a sign of opening up of popular space in political process or decline of representative politics?Examine.
B. Highlight the major features of Non-alignment 2.0 document
C. Identify the role and place of Gender in the global economy.

Q5. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each x 10 marks each
A. Identify the challenges to American hegemony in post Soviet world.
B. What does the pace of nuclear proliferation in post Cold War suggest?
C. State the place of Gender Justice in global agenda.
D. “Global commons belong to global society and requires global attention”.Comment.
E. Sketch the journey of global political economy from Washington consensus to the present.

Q6. Answer the following questions in about 200 words each (20+15+15=50m)
A. Examine major principles of State centric world views.
B. How does Marxist approcah explain contemporary International Relations?
C. ‘National Interests are Dynamic’. Identify the dynamic nature of National Interests in the contemporary world polities with suitable examples.

Q7. Answer the following questions in about 200 words each (20+15+15=50m)
A. ‘The economic content of India’s foreign trade is increasingly growing’. Substantiate the statement with economic diplomatic engagements of India in the last decade.
B. Write a note on Intellectual precursors of Realism.

C. ‘Building ‘peace by pieces’ is the basis of functionalism’. Elaborate.
Q8 Answer the following questions in about 250 words each (20+15+15=50m)
A. ‘Transnational actors have become driving forces of global politics’. Elaborate.
B. ‘A minimal State ensures maximum of Individual Liberty’. Examine the concept of Minimal State.
C. ‘Collective Security and Collective Defense are the institutional and State mechanism to sustain the domination of powers that be in International politics’. Elaborate.

IAS Mains 2013 Optional Subject: HISTORY (Paper-I)

Question 1: Identify the following places marked on the map into question cum answer booklet supplied to you and right about short notes of 30 words on each of them in the space provided in the booklet. 2.5m x 20= 50 marks
i. A paleolithic and Mesolithic site
ii. A Mesolithic site
iii. an important halting place
iv. A pre-Harappan site
v. An important Harappan site
vi. Site of important fossils
vii. A sea port
viii. A paleolithic site
ix. A Neolithic, Megalithic and Chalcolithic site
x. A harappan site
xi. A palaeolithic site
xii. A Neolithic site
xiii. A Chalcolithic site
xiv. A Chalcolithic site
xv. A site of Buddhist Monastery
xvi. Painted Greyware site
xvii. Site related to a famous Indian philosopher
xviii. historical rock cut caves
xix. famous fort
xx. capital of famous kingdom

Q2: 15 + 20 + 15
1. evaluate various views regarding human settlements is gleaned from the Vedic sources
2. discuss the water management and its conservation planning in the harappan (Indus-Saraswati) cities
3. in the absence of a written script, Chalcolithic pottery gives us a fascinating insight into the culture and lifestyle of the people of those times. Comment critically

Q3: 15 + 20 + 15
1. on the basis of contemporary sources, assess the nature of banking and usuary in ancient India
2. Social norms for women in the Dharmasastra and Arthasashtra tradition where framed in accordance with the Varnashrama tradition. Evaluate critically
3. The verna concept may always have been largely a theoretical model and never an actual description of society. Comment in context of ancient India

Q4: 15 + 15 + 20
1. evaluate the contribution of Puranas in disseminating secular knowledge among the masses in ancient India
2. evaluate the ownership of land in ancient India on the basis of literary and epigraphic sources
3. explain as to how the early Buddhist stupa art, while using motifs and narratives and common cultural symbols, succeeded in transforming these themes for expounding Buddhist ideas

History Paper I: Section B

Question 5: Write short notes in not more than 150 words on each of the following: 10 x 5 =50
1. evaluate the Malfuzat texts sources of media history
2. discuss the state of society and economy of the Bahmani kingdom is gleaned from historical sources
3. Give a catch of Indian trade with Europe during Mughal period
4. analyze the steps taken Razia Sultan by to strengthen our position as an independent ruler despite various obstacles
5. Bhakti and Mysticism of Lal Ded emerged as a social force in Kashmir. Comment

Q6: 20 + 15 + 15
1. evaluate the condition industries in India from 1200 to 1500 CE
2. on the basis of contemporary sources evaluate the system of agriculture and irrigation of the Vijaynagar kingdom
3. critically evaluate the educational development during Sultanate period

Q7: 20-15-15
1. on the basis of the accounts of Europeans being outside agrarian crisis during the 17th century India
2. evaluate critically the conditions of labour from 1200 to 1500 CE on the basis of historical sources
3. discuss and evaluate critically various times in the historiography of Bhakti

Q8: 15-20-15
1. analyse how the political processes of state information of Mewar, from 10th to 15th century CE was challenged in the 16th century CE by imperialist policy of Akbar.
2. Assess the Lekhapaddhati as an important source for evaluating the society and economy of the 13th century CE with special reference to Gujarat

IAS Mains 2013 Optional Subject: HISTORY (Paper-II)

Question1: Critically examine the following statement in about 150 words each (10 x 5 =50m)
1. Dupleix made a cardinal blunder in looking for the key to India in Madras: Clive sought and found it in Bengal.
2. Swami Vivekananda opine that “we should give our ancient spirituality and culture and get in return Western science, technology, methods of raising the standards of life, business integrity and technique of collective effort.”
3. Ryotwari falls into three stages – early, middle and late, and the only description common to all is that it is a mode of settlement with small farmers, so small, indeed, that their average holding is, on recent figures, only about 6.5 acres.
4. Many of us who work for the Congress program lived in a kind of intoxication during the year 1921. We were full of excitement and optimism… We had a sense of freedom and pride in that freedom
5. Gandhi’s body is in jail but his soul is with you, India’s prestige is in your hands, you must not use any violence under any circumstances. You will be beaten but you must not exist; you must not raise a hand to ward off blows.

Q2: 25m + 25m
1. “Weaving”, says R. C. Dutt, “was the national industry of the people and spinning was the pursuit of millions of women.” Indian textiles went to England and other parts of Europe, to China and Japan and Burma and Arabia and Persia and parts of Africa. Elucidate.

2. “The first point to note is the continuing importance of religion and philosophy as vital ingredients in the modern Indian Renaissance. Indeed, there is as much reason for regarding it as a reformation as there is for treating it as a Renaissance.” Critically examine.

Q3: 25m + 25m
1. “At the dawn of the twentieth century Lord Curzon, the Viceroy of India, was full of hostility towards the Indian National Congress and he confidentially reported to the Secretary of State in November 1900 : My own belief is that the Congress is tottering to its fall, and one of my greatest ambitions while in India is to assist it to a peaceful demise.” Examine.
2. “Though the Act of 1919 was superseded by that of 1935, the preamble to the former was not repealed—the preservation of the smile of the Cheshire cat after its disappearance, and the latter said nothing about Dominion Status.” Elucidate.

Q4: 25m + 25m
1. “Notwithstanding the quest for .modernity and the antagonism that guided Nehru’s attitude towards the inequalities inherent in the social structure in rural India, the Congress Party did not carry out a concerted campaign against discrimination based on caste. Nehru’s own perception was that industrial growth was bound to break the stranglehold of this feudal remnant. This, however, did not happen in India.” Examine.
2. “The reorganization resulted in rationalizing the political map of India without seriously weakening its unity. If anything, its result has been functional, in as much as it removed what had been a major source of discord, and created homogeneous political units which could be administered through a medium that the vast majority of the population understood. Indeed, it can be said with the benefit of hindsight that language, rather than being a force for division,has proved a cementing and integrating influence.” Examine

History Paper II: Section B (World History)

Q5: Critically examine the following statements in about 150 words each :10×5=50m
1. “For Kant, Enlightenment is mankind’s final coming of age, the emancipation of the human consciousness from an immature state of ignorance and error.”
2. “Six hundred thousand men had died. The Union was preserved, the slaves freed. A nation ‘conceived in liberty and dedicated to the proposition that all men are created equal’ had survived its most terrible ordeal.”
3. “Colonialism not only deprives a society of its freedom and its wealth, but of its very character, leaving its people intellectually and morally disoriented.”
4. “If the 1917 Bolshevik Revolution in Russia (that resulted in the creation of the Union of Soviet Socialist Republics or Soviet Union) inaugurated an international competition for the hearts and minds of people all over the globe, the Chinese Revolution raised the stakes of that struggle.”
5. “Decolonization has finished. It definitely belongs to the past. Yet somehow it has refused to become history.”

Q6: 25+25m
1. “In spite of the careful framing of the Charter, the role of UNO as peacekeeper and international mediator has been somewhat lacklustre and muted and that
2. continues to be so even after the end of Cold War.” Elucidate.
3. “Change in Britain came comparatively peacefully through democratic process in the first half of the nineteenth century and a model of a functioning democracy through ballot box was successfully put in place.” Elaborate.

Q7: 25+25m
1. “New imperialism was a nationalistic, not an economic phenomena.” Critically examine.
2. “By the 1980s, the Communist system of the Soviet Union was incapable of maintaining the country’s role as a Superpower.” Elucidate.

Q8: 25+25m
1. “The European Union is the new sick man of Europe.” Critically evaluate.
2. “There must be an end to white monopoly on political power, and a fundamental restructuring of our political and economic systems to ensure that the inequalities of apartheid are addressed and our society thoroughly democratized.” Discuss.

IAS Mains 2013 Optional Subject: PSYCHOLOGY Paper -I

 Section A
Question 1: Answer the following, each in not more than 150 words. 10×5=50 marks
1. Critically evaluate the cognitive approach to the study of psychological phenomena.
2. What is ethnocentrism? Bow is it reflected in psychological research?
3. What factors contribute to the encoding of information into LTM?
4. How flow of genes affect development?
5. Describe different reinforcement schedules and indicate their effects on the strength of learning.

Question 2: Answer each in not more than 250 words :15+20+15
1. What do you understand by ‘effect size’ and ‘statistical power’? Explain their significance.
2. Discuss the importance of early relationship l’or developmental outcomes in the light of researches by Bowlby and Anisworth.
3. Compare template matching and feature detection accounts of pattern recognition.

Question 3: Answer the following, each in not more than 400 words. 25+25
1. The discipline of psychology has grown and developed through debate between those who held that it should be modelled on natural science and those who subscribed to the view that it has to follow the model of social science. What arguments you envision for or against these views? What position you would like to endorse and why?
2. Bring out the key developmental challenges faced by adolescents in the cognitive and social domains.

Question 4: Answer the following, each in not more than 250 words: 15+20+15
1. Why our representations of the external world are not entirely accurate?
2. Describe and evaluate the modal model of short-term memory.
3. Describe the basic elements of observation and bring out the implications of the dimension of participation in observational research.

Psychology Paper I: Section B

Question 5: Answer each in 150 words. 10 x 5 =50
1. What is the situational critique of trait psychology?
2. Explain Sternberg’s view of intelligence and bring out its implication for schooling.
3. Every function in the child’s development appears twice : first on social level and later. on the individual level.” Vygotsky. Discuss the above statement and indicate your own position on this proposition.
4. What are the process of language production?
5. How do novices differ from experts?

Question 6: Answer the following, each in not more than 250 words :15+20+15
1. Bring out the role of left and right hemispheres in emotional experience.
2. What is intrinsic motivation? Why it gets reduced if the person gets external rewind for undertaking a task that he or she loves?
3. Explain correspondents’ bias. Is it universal or culturally variable?

Question 7: Answer the following each in more than 400 words :25+25
1. What is the role of social categorization in the formation of prejudice? Suggest some strategies to reduce prejudice.
2. How the psychoanalytic view differs from physiological or cognitive view of dream?
Question 8: Answer the following. each in not more than 250 words: 15+20+15
1. What are the requirements to be met by psychological assessment tools for offering accurate and useful measure of psychological constructs?
2. What makes a persuasive attempt effective? Discuss.
3. Describe the Indian approach to personality as reflected in the principle of three Gunas.

IAS Mains 2013 Optional Subject: PSYCHOLOGY (Paper-II)

Section A

Question 1: Answer the following questions in about 150 words each. 10 x 5 =50m
1. How will you ensure that a newly constructed personnel selection test measures that it purports to measure and predicts what it intends to predict? Explain.
2. Reflect on the major issues and contradictions related to the understanding of well-being. Discuss with reference to current social trends.
3. How would you identify gifted children? Explain with examples.
4. Discuss the steps that can be taken to improve the quality of group decision-making.
5. India rates very high on carbon emission. What use can be made of psychological knowledge to reduce the level of carbon emission in India?

Question 2: Answer the following questions in about 200 words each: 15+15+20
1. What is your understanding of organizational politics? Discuss how it impacts decision-making processes in bureaucratic organizations.
2. Discuss the psychological implications of the ‘glass ceiling’ effect from the perspective of an administrator.
3. Reflecting on the status of education in India, state whether it can help in reducing the gap which has been experienced due to social inequality.

Question 3: Answer the following questions in about 200 words each.15+20+15
1. Discuss the relative efficacy of psycho-social and community-based rehabilitation models in case of the physically challenged.
2. Identify relevant indices for understanding the emergence of ingroup and outgroup processes. Discuss with the help of a suitable theoretical framework.
3. Discuss the key determinants of consumer behaviour in India. How do cultural values influence it?

Question 4: Answer the following questions in about 200 words each. 15+20+15
1. What psychological approach/approaches can be used to persuade those who oppose family planning on religious grounds?
2. Identify the factors in arousal of community consciousness and also the
3. strategies for handling social problems keeping in view some of the recent protest movements in India.
4. What are the necessary conditions required in client-centred therapy? Discuss the therapeutic process involved in it.
Psychology Paper II Section B

Question 5: Answer the following questions in about 150 words each. 10 x 5 =50
1. Discuss how the psychological training given to sports persons can be useful for administrators with reference to maintaining team spirit and group morale.
2. How can psychological resilience of the personnel of the armed forces be enhanced? Discuss.
3. Discuss how cognitive and motivational factors influence entrepreneurial behaviour.
4. How can psychological principles be used to conserve water? Develop a plan.
5. Define ‘self-fulfilling prophecy’. Can it affect the students’ performance belonging to special categories?

Question 6: Answer the following questions in about 200 words each: 20+15+15
1. Discuss the relative significance of group factors versus personality factors in explaining the behaviour of terrorists.
2. Identify the ethical and non-ethical uses of psychological tests especially measuring individual differences. Provide suitable examples.
3. What bases of power are used by successful leaders to exercise influence within organizations? Discuss.

Question 7: Answer the following questions in about 200 words each: 15 + 20+15
1. What lessons can be drawn from psychological research to promote gender equality in the workplace?
2. What explanations are offered by psychological theories about the manner in which media influences antisocial behavior?
3. Discuss the influences of information technology in modifying the career perspectives of young adults with special reference to the values of life.

Question 8: Answer the following questions in about 200 words each: 20+15+15
1. Reflect on the possibility of fostering positive mental health through indigenous therapies along with cultural practices.
2. Is religion in India at the root of social conflicts? Discuss and provide suitable ways to deal with such conflicts.
3. “Poverty alleviation is a dream spread with ulterior motives.” Do you agree? Justify your views.

IAS Mains 2013 Optional Subject: LAW (Paper-I)

Question 1 (compulsory)
Each with 10 marks and 150 words x 5 question = 50 marks.
1. Has judiciary been a hindrance or a facilitator in the interpretation of Directive Principles? Examine in the light of various judgments of the Supreme Court.
2. “Fundamental duties are only ethical or moral duties and should not form a part of the Fundamental law.” Comment.
3. Is ‘Commercial advertisement’ covered within the ambit of ‘freedom of speech and expression’? Discuss with reference to leading cases.
4. critically examine the constitutional validity of an amendment deleting Article 16(4) and authorising the State to make job reservation in favour of the backward classes of citizens.
5. Doctrine of equality under the Constitution cannot be applied to legitimise an illegal act. Can equality be invoked to justify another wrong? Critically examine with reference to cases.

Question 2
Each with 25 marks. Word limit not given
1. Do you agree with the view that “Equality is antithesis of arbitrariness. In fact equality and arbitrariness are sworn enemies”? Comment critically.
2. “The Constitution of India merely subscribes to three-fold division of gubernatorial functions and not to the doctrine of separation of powers in its absolute rigidity.” Comment.

Question 3
Each with 25 marks. Word limit not given
1. The goals specified in the Preamble contain basic structure of our Constitution, which cannot be amended under Article 368. Elaborate in context of leading cases.
2. What restrictions have been imposed by the Constitutional Amendment (44th) to check misuse of proclamation of emergency? Discuss.

Question 4
write critical notes on each of following.
1. Residuary Powers. 15
2. Whether law relating to preventive detention can be challenged for violation of Article 19? 15 marks
3. Introduction of Uniform Civil Code. 20 marks
.
Law Question Paper I: Section B

Question 5 (compulsory)
10 marks each, word limit not given.
1. “Due to increasing penetration of international legal rules within the domestic systems, the distinction maintained between two autonomous zones of international and municipal law has been somewhat blurred.” Explain with special reference to Indian practice. How international legal rules emanating from customs and treaties, influence the actions of domestic agencies? 10 marks.
2. While concluding a multilateral treaty, a State can make reservation(s) and the other State(s) may accept or reject such reservation(s) without jeopardising the object and integrity of the treaty. Discuss the need and relevance of reservations in treaty law in the light of above statement. 10 marks.
3. Explain the rights and duties of coastal state over continental shelf, exclusive economic zone and high seas as defined under the provisions of UN Convention on Law of Sea (III), 1982
4. The Arbitration Commission of European Conference on Yugoslavia emphasised in opinion no. 2 that “it is well established that whatever the circumstances, the right to self-determination must not involve changes to existing frontiers at the time of independence (Uti possidetis juris) except where the states concerned agree otherwise.”Explain the present day relevance of principle of self-determination as a human right incorporated in both the international covenants with the help of at least one actual instance
5. “States are not under a duty to recognize a nationality acquired by a person who has no genuine link or connection with the naturalizing state.” [Nottenbohm case (second phase) ICJ 1955]. In the light of above statement, explain the concept of ‘nationality’ and its acquisition with the help of suitable instances.

Question 6
25 marks each, word limit not given.
1. “The substance of customary law must be looked into primarily in actual practice and `opinio juris’ of the States.” In the light of above statement and by referring to case law, explain the interplay between objective and subjective elements in acceptance of a particular custom as a source of international law.
2. “States are subject to a duty under International Law to recognise a new State fulfilling the legal requirements of Statehood, but the existence of such a duty is not borne out by the weight of precedents and practices of States. The decision of a State in according or withholding recognition is a matter of vital policy that each State is entitled to take by itself.” Reconcile and argue which of these two statements (extreme views) regarding recognition of a State given by Lauterpacht (obligatory) and by Podesta Costa (Facultative) is more appropriate, with the help of instances in regard to de facto and de jure recognition.

Question 7
25 marks each, word limit not given.
1. The concepts of ‘necessity’ and ‘proportionality’ are at the heart of self-defence in International Law. Explain, in the light of UN Charter and recent trend of extending these to ‘pre-emptive’ or ‘anticipatory’ self-defence due to ‘the imminence of attacks and advancement in armaments’.
2. A group of three men (L, M and N) citizens of country A, posing as officers of premier investigating agency of A, rob a huge jewellery shop and then flee away to country B, where they are granted asylum. Government of A, requests B to extradite L, M and N in terms of extradition treaty between them. B declines. A sends spies to B who abduct L, M and N and who produce them before the Court in A. `B’ approaches ICJ against use of force by ‘A’. Prepare (i) A brief of arguments for A, (ii) A brief of arguments for B,(iii) Opinion of the Court.

Question 8
25 marks each, word limit not given.
1. Chapter VI of UN Charter is devoted to peaceful settlement of International Disputes. Discuss the methods mentioned and explain the role of Security Council and General Assembly in this regard, and the role such settlement plays in obviating the need to resort to Chapter VII measures.
2. A member of European Union has witnessed widespread disturbances, consequent upon a military coup, including censorship on all forms of media and communication, targeting civilians sympathetic with the ousted leader by assaulting and killing, severe rationing and control on essential commodities such as fuel and food resulting into galloping inflation. In the light of these grave violations of human rights, examine the role of :
i. Security Council
ii. European Court of Human Rights.

IAS Mains - 2013 Optional Subject: Paper-II - LAW

Question 1 (Compulsory)
10 marks x 125 words each x 5 questions= 50 marks
1. “The word ‘Voluntary’ as used in the Indian Penal Code is very significant and it does not mean willingly but knowingly or intentionally.” Explain.
2. “Fake police encounters are nothing but murders and police officers committing it without any protection of law to them deserve death penalty as the cases fall into rarer of the rarest category.” Comment.
3. “Nuisance as a tort means an unlawful interference with a person’s use or enjoyment of land or some right over or in connection with it.” Comment.
4. “Involuntary drunkenness is a defence.” Critically examine the law relating to intoxication as defence.
5. “The definition given under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 gives altogether a new legal colour and scope to the term `Consumer’.” In the light of this statement, explain the term ‘Consumer’.

Question 2
25 marks each, word limit not given.
1. Mr.X, the producer of a film showing life of ‘homosexuals’, is prosecuted under Section 292 of the Indian Penal Code, alleging that the film was obscene and indecent. The film was certified by the Censor Board of Film of India for public shows. X intends to claim protection against his charge under Section 79 of the Indian Penal Code. Can he do so? Justify your answer.
2. The natural calamity in Uttarakhand left hundreds dead. Some people were seen removing gold ornaments, watches and other valuables from these dead bodies. Few days later, police apprehended them and wanted to prosecute them. Under which provisions of the Indian Penal Code can they be prosecuted? Discuss.

Question 3
1. “Assault is an act of the defendant which causes to the plaintiff reasonable apprehension of the infliction of a battery on him by the defendant.” Comment and distinguish between assault and battery. 20m
2. X sends an e-mail to Y containing defamatory matters against him. The e-mail is received by Y who deletes it after reading. Is X liable for publication? Refer to relevant case law. 15m
3. X, while driving car, suddenly became unconscious and fell back in his seat. The car became uncontrolled, it hit and killed Y. Discuss the liability of X. 15m

Question 4
25 marks each, word limit not given.
1. “Plea bargaining, which was considered unconstitutional, illegal and tending to encourage complaint, collusion and pollution of the pure punt of justice, is now a part of sentencing under the Indian Criminal Law.” Comment.
2. Q refused to marry her boyfriend P, resulting into Ps depression. Mr. R, a friend of P, suggested him to take revenge with an intention that P will come out of shock. R provided P with a bottle of liquid believing it as acid. P mistook X to be Q in darkness and threw it on her (X) causing rashes on the face of X, which later resulted into serious injuries. The investigations revealed that it was not acid but was a concentrate of fungicide. Decide the liability of P and R in this case, keeping in mind that defences which may be available to P and R.
Law Question Paper II: Section B

Question 5 (Compulsory)
10 marks x 125 words each x 5 questions= 50 marks
1. ‘Indemnity’ has relation to the conduct either of the indemnifier himself or of a third party. A ‘Guarantee’ is always related to the conduct of a third party.” Elucidate.
2. “Privity of contract is no longer a rule but only an exception.” Explain in the context of modern transactions.
3. “The copyright exists in expression but not in idea.” Discuss with the help of the provisions of Copyright Act and case law.
4. “The principle of ‘holding out’ is based on the principle of estoppel.” Elucidate.
5. “Once an instrument passes through the hands of a holder in due course, it is purged of all defects, it is true like a current coin.” Explain.

Question 6
25 marks each, word limit not given.
1. “It has been a common statement of the law that while relief is available for certain kinds of mutual mistake, it is unavailable for unilateral mistake unless the other party knew or had reason to know of the mistake.” Critically examine the statement with leading case law.
2. Critically analyses the term ‘inventive steps’ as incorporated under the Patent (Amendment) Act, 2005. Do you agree with the present definition? Refer to recent case law.

Question 7
25 marks each, word limit not given.
1. “An attempt by all political parties to bring amendments to the RTI Act, 2005 is to sabotage the steps towards transparency of governance in this country.” Critically evaluate the statement.
2. In matters such as enforcement of social, economic, cultural or political rights or civil liberties or gender concerns, courts in India have been inclined to apply relaxed rules of standing or litigational competence rather than strict rules of locus. Discuss.
Question 8
25 marks each, word limit not given.
1. Competition Law in India has not achieved the result as was expected. Discuss the bottlenecks with which it suffers and suggest the remedies necessary to make it fruitful.
2. Corporates causing havoc to the wildlife existing on seashores is an extreme type of environmental crime and laws are almost non-existent to deal with them directly. Discuss.